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Test answers for Software Testing 2020

(163 / 1, CL) Last updated: August 22
Elance • IT & Programming
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163 Answered Test Questions:

1. Signs of a mature tester include:

Answers:

• Can stand up to development and fight for bugs to be fixed

• all of the these

• Have been through full software development cycle

• Can handle having 100 straight bugs marked as won't fix

2. Elements of an excellent tester include ____

Answers:

• (none of these)

• Can delegate testing work back into the development team

• Lazy enough to not want to do things more than once

• Can stay up all night in crunch time

3. True or false? Stress testing doesn't work in an agile model.

Answers:

• True

• False

4. What kind of tools would you use for the automation of regression tests?

Answers:

• Debugging tools

• Capture and playback tools

• Static analysis tools

• None of these

5. What is reliability testing?

Answers:

• A field of testing in which deals with testing a software's ability to function under given environmental conditions for a particular amount of time

• A test conducted to determine if the requirements of a specification or contract are met

• A field of testing in which deals with testing a software's ability to function for a particular amount of time

• An assessment that requires an examinee to actually perform a task or activity, rather than simply answering questions referring to specific parts

6. What is a branch?

Answers:

• a mechanism to produce the expected outcomes to compare with the expected outcomes of the Software Under Test (SUT)

• Deviation of the software from its expected delivery or service

• Operational testing at a site not otherwise involved with the software developers

• A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component

7. True or False? Glass Box testing and White Box testing are functionally very different tests.

Answers:

• True

• False

8. Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform stress testing?

Answers:

• The typical load of the software is unknown at the time of testing.

• The testing is trying to find race conditions and deadlocks.

• The software is considered “mission critical”.

• The user interface must be intuitive.

9. ________ is the degree to which a piece of software can be tested.

Answers:

• Testability

• Test Planning

• Test Risk

• Software Quality

10. 5th Level in TMM

Answers:

• Definition

• measurement

• Optimisation

• Integration

11. Which of the following is not a type of performance testing?

Answers:

• Stress testing

• Configuration testing

• Load testing

• Beta testing

12. What is difference between Pilot Testing and Beta Testing?

Answers:

• Pilot Test involve Small group of end users but beta test involve large group

• Beta Test involve small group of end users but Pilot Test involve large group

• Difference are vague

• No difference

13. Stress testing does NOT place an emphasis on which of the following?

Answers:

• Unexpected user input

• Availability under a heavy load

• Robustness of the software

• Performance under a heavy load

14. Which Software Development Life Cycle model requires testing activities to start at the same time as development activities?

Answers:

• V model

• Linear model

• Spiral model

• Waterfall model

15. If a input box accepts value of range 1-1000, then the following answers are FALSE if using EP technique

Answers:

• invalid value below 1

• valid value from range 1 - 10000

• invalid value above 1000

• all of these

16. What does BCT stand for?

Answers:

• Box Clear Testing

• Black Code Testing

• Browser Compatibility Testing

• None of these

• Boundary compatibility Testing

17. What is the main purpose of use case testing?

Answers:

• To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

• To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

• To identify defects in the connections between components.

• To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

18. A simple performance test is basically ___

Answers:

• running BVT and monitoring resources

• running code coverage and monitoring resources

• running stress tests and monitoring resources

19. In which testing method are the internal structures, design, implementation of the software known at the time of testing?

Answers:

• Blackbox testing

• Beta testing

• Performance testing

• Whitebox testing

20. In what order should tests be run?

Answers:

• The most important tests last.

• The most complex tests first.

• The simplest tests first.

• The most important tests first.

21. True or false? Zero and one are typically in the same equivalence class.

Answers:

• True

• False

22. ________ is the process that developers go through to identify the cause of defects in code and undertake corrections.

Answers:

• Debugging

• Code Review

• Development

• Testing

23. What type of testing is component testing?

Answers:

• Beta testing

• Acceptance testing

• Unit testing

• Integration testing

24. Which model is most suitable for rapid development

Answers:

• Agile Development

• Waterfall model

• V-model

• Spiral model

25. Which of the following is a technique used in black-box testing?

Answers:

• API testing

• Boundary value analysis

• Statement coverage

• Mutation testing

26. True or false? All tests should be automated by the end of the product cycle.

Answers:

• True

• False

27. What is boundary value testing?

Answers:

• Test boundary conditions as far as possible from the edges of input and output equivalence classes

• Test the boundary between the browser and server to avoid security attacks

• Test the boundary between memory and disk to avoid security attacks

• Tests that are "on the boundary" and should be considered to be removed from the test plan due to their low value

• Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

28. How do you ensure that all requirements have been met?

Answers:

• Completed Path Analysis

• Completed Test incident Report

• Completed Requirements traceability matrix

• Completed Code Coverage Analysis

• Completed Test Summary Report

29. _____________ tests the performance of the system under a heavy load.

Answers:

• Stress testing

• Performance testing

• Blackbox testing

• Configuration testing

30. What is Regression Testing?

Answers:

• Checking the side effects after the changes

• Checking the changes and checking the side effects after the changes

• None

• Checking the changes

31. Which testing method tests internal structures or workings of a program, as opposed to the functionality exposed to the end user?

Answers:

• black-box testing

• white-box testing

• compatibility testing

• alpha testing

32. True or False? User acceptance testing is typically among the first tests performed.

Answers:

• True

• False

33. ________ is the process of executing a program or piece of software with the intent of finding an error.

Answers:

• Testing

• Test planning

• Software Quality Assurance

• Risk reduction

34. If an expected result is not specified, then:

Answers:

• We cannot automate the user inputs

• It may be difficult to repeat the test

• It is not possible to run the test

• It may be difficult to determine of the test has passed or failed

35. What is one of the reasons to have independent software testing teams?

Answers:

• A test team will test the software more thoroughly

• Testers do not get involved before the code is written

• Reduces tension between testers and developers

• Software engineers don't need to do testing

36. True or false? Zero and null are the almost always the same from a test perspective.

Answers:

• TRUE

• False

37. _____________ tests the functionality of the software without knowledge of the internal structures, design, or implementation of the software.

Answers:

• Blackbox testing

• Beta testing

• Whitebox testing

• Performance testing

38. What is the difference between re-testing and regression testing?

Answers:

• Re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects

• Regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed; Re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects

• No difference, they are the same thing

39. Which of the following is a Performance testing tool?

Answers:

• Load Runner

• Selenium

• QTP

• Sahi

• Soap UI

40. When should the testing team start planning the test of a given software release?

Answers:

• As early as possible

• Testing teams don't plan the testing, the developers do

• Only after the code was written

• There is no need to plan, testing is done by the specs

41. Which one of the following is NOT a commonly used tool for automating testing?

Answers:

• Test Studio

• QTP

• Drupal

• Selenium

42. A ____________ is a description of inputs, execution steps, and expected results written in order to determine if a specific requirement has been met or whether a specific software feature works correctly.

Answers:

• Test Case

• Test Step

• Specification

• Code Review

43. What is unit testing?

Answers:

• Assures that the system is installed correctly and working at actual customer's hardware

• Tests a completely integrated system to verify that it meets its requirements

• Tests that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design

• Tests that verify the functionality of a specific section of code

44. Which of the following is typically NOT included in a test case?

Answers:

• Pass/Fail indicator

• Related requirements

• Related design decisions

• Test case ID

45. Software testing which is done without planning and documentation is known as:

Answers:

• Unit Testing

• Ad-hoc Testing

• Grey box Testing

• Functional Testing

46. ____________ is a testing method that divides the input data set into classes of data for the test cases.

Answers:

• Performance testing

• Equivalence Partitioning

• Whitebox testing

• Beta testing

47. Who performs beta testing?

Answers:

• Customer

• Software Project Manager

• Software Engineer

• Developer

48. A collection of test cases is also commonly known as a ______.

Answers:

• bug pool

• scenario test

• test compilation

• test suite

49. Non-Functional Software testing performed to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand is known as:

Answers:

• Unit Testing

• White Box Testing

• Usability Testing

• Security Testing

50. What is the difference between testing and debugging?

Answers:

• Debugging is a very cursory overview of the code and testing is a much more rigorous attempt at fixing the error

• Testing is the initial detecting of errors and debugging is the isolation and correction of errors

• Testing is typically performed by amateurs as a hobby and debugging is typically performed by professionals

• Testing and debugging are interchangeable terms and essentially the same activity

51. How often should software engineers test their code?

Answers:

• Only on complex code; they should focus on developing

• Only on new features; old features are already tested

• Only where there is no testing team

• Always

52. Describe Risk Analysis

Answers:

• Project manager's responsibility only.

• Assessing the risk of not hiring enough testers for the project.

• Analysis of how customers will react on software problems.

• Marketing meeting where new features are discussed.

• Actions taken to avoid things that might negatively impact the scope, quality, timeliness or cost of the project.

53. True or False? The cost of correcting defects at an early stage in the Software Development Life Cycle is less than correcting them at a later stage.

Answers:

• False

• True

54. Which of the following is the name of a popular automated testing tool?

Answers:

• QTP

• TPQ

• QAT

• CuteTP

• PTQ

55. ___________ tests the stability and responsiveness of the software under a particular workload.

Answers:

• Functional testing

• Whitebox testing

• Performance testing

• Blackbox testing

56. With 100,000 users on a typical day how many page views would there be?

Answers:

• depends

• 100000

• 300000

• 200000

57. True or False? Software verification and software validation are the same thing.

Answers:

• False

• True

58. Software testing is the process of validating and verifying that a system:

Answers:

• Functions properly under specific conditions

• Works as expected

• All of these

• Meets its requirements

59. Which of the following is NOT a software testing approach type?

Answers:

• Red box

• Gray box

• Black box

• White box

60. BVT stands for ______.

Answers:

• busy variation testing

• bane of my very existence

• build validation topic

• build verification tests

61. What is a test plan?

Answers:

• Developed by business analysts to meet the requirements.

• Collective work of QA team on software testing risks.

• Table of content followed by multiple characters.

• Document that describes the objectives, scope, approach and focus of software testing effort.

62. The most relevant meaning of SDLC in relation to software testing is:

Answers:

• Software Detection Life Cycle

• Software Defects Life Cycle

• Software Development Learning Center

• Software Development Life Cycle

• Severe Defects Life Cycle

63. A solid program manager should be ____

Answers:

• II. great at managing business requirements

• I. great at specs and schedules

• all of the these

• III. both a tester and a program manager

64. __________ is testing performed by the customer, usually at the customer's site, immediately prior to release.

Answers:

• Blackbox testing

• Whitebox testing

• Beta testing

• Unit testing

65. Complete this sentence as best as possible:  Equivalence partitioning __________.

Answers:

• partitions the tests between equal time spans

• tests whether disk partitions are equally distributed

• divides the input data into partitions

• divides the test equally between the testers

66. True or False? QA and software testing are synonyms.

Answers:

• True

• False

67. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good test case?

Answers:

• The test case tests invalid inputs.

• The test case has a high probability of finding an error.

• The test case is dependent on other test cases.

• The test case is neither too simple nor too complex.

68. Which is not part of a test plan?

Answers:

• Retrospect report

• Test Schedule

• Test Templates

• (all of these)

• Roles and Responsibilities

69. Which of the following is NOT true?

Answers:

• A test suite is a collection of test cases

• Acceptance tests check client-defined requirements and scenarios the product must meet

• Performance is one of the things functional tests must check

• In TDD, tests are written even before the code

70. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

Answers:

• The independent testing team

• A small team to establish the best way to use the tool

• The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

• Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

71. Load Testing is ______

Answers:

• II. creating a giant load to find where the system falls apart

• III. modelling the user activity on a busy traffic day

• both I and III

• I. modelling a typical day of user activity

72. A program point where the control flow has two or more alternative routes is known as what?

Answers:

• A driver

• An incident

• A route gate

• A decision

73. ______ tests how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system.

Answers:

• Usability Testing

• User Acceptance Testing

• Beta Testing

• Alpha Testing

74. Which of the following is NOT an activity completed during test planning?

Answers:

• Preparation of test strategy document

• Create test cases

• Test tool selection

• Test effort estimation

75. Stress testing should start ______.

Answers:

• immediately following integration

• the week before ship

• immediately on day one

• immediately following unit test complete

76. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of blackbox testing?

Answers:

• Testers can be non-technical.

• Testing can find discrepancies between the software and the specifications.

• Test cases can be written as soon as the functional specification is complete.

• Testing can help optimize the code.

77. What is a browser matrix?

Answers:

• a list of browsers that could be tested on

• a list of browsers that each tester needs to have in their office

• a committed document between management and testing about which browsers and screen sizes are supported

• something that can wait until the last sprint

78. A tester needs to think like _____

Answers:

• a business owner

• (all of these choices)

• a developer

• an end user

79. Which of these instances of finding a software defect will result in the least loss of time and money to fix?

Answers:

• QA Engineer finds the bug a day before releasing

• A peer finds the bug during code review

• A bug in the design is found during design review

• The developer finds the bug during Sanity Testing

• The customer finds the defect in production

80. TMM Means

Answers:

• Testing measurement Model

• Testing Maturity Model

• Testing Management Model

81. Which of the following is a good way to grade a tester?

Answers:

• on time test delivery

• bug count / no repro count

• most ship stopper bugs

82. True or false. Once all the bugs are fixed, ship the product.

Answers:

• False

• True

83. Stress testing hardware must be _____

Answers:

• scaled appropriately to the test load

• exactly the same as production to get the right results

• any old server will work fine

84. Which of the following is NOT a common resolution type for a defect?

Answers:

• Refactored

• Closed - fixed

• As designed

• Could not reproduce

• Reopened

85. Using Performance Tests to project server specs and server scale requires:

Answers:

• you to run each function in loops in isolation and apply resource usage to the projected load

• This isn't a function of performance tests

• you to run code coverage tests with resource monitoring and adjust to the projected load

• you to run the load test and monitor resource usage and rescale according to hardware differences

86. Testing should be stopped when

Answers:

• All the planned testcases have been run

• All faults have been fixed correctly

• It depends on the risks for the system been tested

• Time has run out

87. Running a system at high load for an extended period of time is called:

Answers:

• Drive testing

• Smoke testing

• Soak testing

• Structural testing

88. Which of these are NOT phases of the "IDEAL" organizational improvement model?

Answers:

• Imagining

• Diagnosing

• Acting

• Establishing

89. True or false? Ajax enabling a website increases the number of server requests.

Answers:

• True

• FALSE

90. True or False? Instrumentation is performed by coverage measurement tools in pre-compiler pass.

Answers:

• True

• False

91. RC1 stands for ______.

Answers:

• release candidate #1

• RC cola baby!

• releasable code milestone 1

• regression certification level one

92. Why would a tester use equivalence class testing?

Answers:

• The tester wants to test all possible input data.

• The tester has knowledge of the internal structures of the software.

• The tester is unsure of all the input data sets.

• The tester wants to reduce the total number of test cases that need to be developed.

93. __________ uses short development cycles where a test is written prior to code.

Answers:

• Test Driven Development

• Agile Development

• Software Engineering

• Software Development

94. True or false? Simultaneous execution is a minor effect in performance testing.

Answers:

• False

• TRUE

95. Testing an object without execution on a computer is known as _____.

Answers:

• non-functional system testing

• static testing

• stub testing

96. Test driven development (TDD) refers to what?

Answers:

• Writing tests for untested legacy code before introducing new features

• Writing new code alongside already tested code

• Writing one method and then thoroughly writing tests for it

• Writing a failing test first and then writing the minimum amount of code to make it pass

97. What is mutation testing?

Answers:

• Testing the functionality of an application without knowledge of the application's code/internal structure

• Purposely modifying an application in order to see if the testing suite will reject it

• Testing with the specific purpose of seeing how a system will perform in the future

• A technique in which all possible branches of the program's source code are tested at least once

98. Executing the same test case by changing the input on the same build is called:

Answers:

• Re-testing

• Ad-hoc Testing

• Sanity Testing

• Regression Testing

99. True or false? All WC3 errors should be fixed to ship.

Answers:

• TRUE

• False

100. ______ is a method of testing where the software isn't used that checks the sanity of the code or algorithm.

Answers:

• Beta testing

• Performance testing

• Dynamic testing

• Static testing

101. A system includes a database server, a caching server, and an application server.  How many integration points are there?

Answers:

• three

• need more information

• six

102. Who should perform validation testing?

Answers:

• Project Manager

• Technical Lead

• Developer

• Customer

103. What is the other name of All-Pairs Testing?

Answers:

• Combined Testing

• All of Them

• Null Testing

• Parallel Testing

• Pairwise Testing

104. Which of the following is non-incremental testing?

Answers:

• Top-down testing

• Stab testing

• Big bang testing

• Bottom-up testing

105. Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Answers:

• Boundary value analysis

• Statement testing

• State transition testing

• Decision table testing

106. Which of the following is NOT a way stress may be placed on a piece of software?

Answers:

• Test all user input fields

• Run processes that consume a lot of resources

• Take the database offline, then restart it

• Double the baseline number of concurrent users

107. Which of the following is NOT a reason to believe two test cases will produce the same result and fall in the same equivalence class?

Answers:

• They result in similar operations in the program.

• They affect the same output variables.

• They involve the same input variables.

• If one catches a bug, the other probably will not.

108. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Answers:

• Component testing should be performed by development

• Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing

• Component testing does not involve regression testing

• Component testing should have completion criteria planned

109. ‘Be bugging’ is known as

Answers:

• Fixing the defects by debugging

• Adding known defects by seeding

• A process of fixing the defects by tester

• Preventing the defects by inspection

110. Testing only the changes or modifications is called

Answers:

• Regression

• Adoptation

• Emigration

• Progression

• Retesting

111. Verification is:

Answers:

• Performed by an independent test team

• Checking that we are building the system right

• Making sure that it is what the user really wants

• Checking that we are building the right system

112. Power outage testing is part of ________.

Answers:

• stress testing

• edge case testing

• integration testing

• performance testing

113. ________________ is the process of evaluating software to ensure it meets the customer’s requirements.

Answers:

• Software Quality Assurance

• Verification

• Software Engineering

• Validation

114. When should the test environment setup be done?

Answers:

• During the requirements phase

• In parallel with test execution

• After test case development is completed

• In parallel with test case development

115. Which of the following is NOT a form of dynamic testing?

Answers:

• Use case testing

• Data Flow Analysis

• Equivalence Partitioning

• Exploratory testing

116. A sports team plays 3 games a season. How many tests does a comprehensive test plan need to cover all the possible season results?

Answers:

• 4

• 5

• 3

• 11

117. What type of performance testing would you want run repeatedly to ensure consistent system performance?

Answers:

• Soak testing

• Beta testing

• Benchmark testing

• Regression testing

118. True or False? CAST stands for Computer-Aided Simple Testing?

Answers:

• False

• True

119. Resource hog tools are part of ________.

Answers:

• performance testing

• integration testing

• stress testing

120. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or factor in testability.

Answers:

• Observability

• Robustness

• Controllability

• Understandability

121. An operator verifies that all production jobs are run.  This is:

Answers:

• Disaster recovery

• Quality Control

• Quality Assurance

• Production planning

122. All of the following might be done during unit testing except

Answers:

• Compiler based testing

• Walkthrough

• Desk check

• Manual support testing

123. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing?

Answers:

• Breadth Test and Depth Test

• Retesting

• (none of these)

• Confirmation Testing

• Sanity Testing

124. An expert based test estimation is also known as

Answers:

• Wide band Delphi

• Narrow band Delphi

• Bespoke Delphi

• Robust Delphi

125. How many ways are there to make 100 cents with identical American currency units?

Answers:

• 7

• 5

• 6

• 4

126. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for automating software testing?

Answers:

• To find additional defects missed by manual testing.

• Rapid feedback for the developers is needed.

• There is a tight deadline to release the software.

• The team needs to do regression testing.

127. How stable is the ZBB build?

Answers:

• the least stable

• sort of stable

• very stable

128. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’

Answers:

• Sanity testing

• System testing

• Regression testing

• Smoke testing

129. The function max(a,b) has how many equivalence classes?

Answers:

• 3

• 9

• 7

• 5

130. A function int abs(int input) has how many equivalence classes?

Answers:

• 4

• 10

• 8

• 6

131. How many equivalence classes are there for testing an integer?

Answers:

• 6

• 8

• 10

• 4

132. What is the major advantage of bottom-up integration testing?

Answers:

• No stubs need to be written

• Major decision points are tested early

• No drivers need to be written

• Regression testing is not required

133. ZBB stands for ______.

Answers:

• zero bug bounce

• zero bug build

• zebras build boats

• zero bvt build

134. Which of these is a sql injection attack for login?

Answers:

• password OR 1'

• OR 1 '

• ' OR 1

• OR 1

135. In a TDD model:

Answers:

• a test review is done before coding starts

• unit tests aren't necessary

• a test case outline is constructed during the first sprint

• only failing test cases cause code to be written

136. Flip a coin. Using a software testing mindset, how many outcomes are possible?

Answers:

• 3

• 2

• 4

137. When should test cases be written?

Answers:

• In parallel with design

• In parallel with development

• Immediately after development is complete

• Immediately after requirements are completed

138. What value test function will get function test (+'5') {  }

Answers:

• undefined

• 5

• function s() { }

• null

139. Stress testing should use ____

Answers:

• an incrementing initial value for ease of replay

• a random initial value to maximize coverage

• the same initial values on each run until it runs clean

• a pseudo random initial value to maximize debuggability

140. __________ is the set of procedures used throughout the software lifecycle to ensure the software will meet its requirements.

Answers:

• Software Quality Control

• Planning

• Software Quality Assurance

• Testing

141. What is the name of an analysis method that determines which parts of the software have been executed by the test case suite, and which parts have not been executed and therefore may require additional attention?

Answers:

• Requirement Traceability

• Code Coverage

• Test Design

• Gap Analysis

142. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of

Answers:

• The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system

• The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

• The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards

• The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase

143. What of these tools is good fit for GUI testing and use Jython programming language?

Answers:

• Sikuli

• Watir

• Robot Framework

• Selenium

144. Out of these Testing levels,for which level ,the White box testing is not viable:

Answers:

• Unit Testing

• Regression Testing

• Integration Testing

• System Testing

145. Which of the following can inspections NOT find?

Answers:

• Variables not defined in the code

• How much of the code has been covered

• Spelling and grammar faults in the documents

• Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents

146. ________________ is the process of evaluating software to ensure it meets the specified requirements.

Answers:

• Verification

• Software Quality Assurance

• Software Design

• Validation

147. which one is NOT the correct ordering of formal review process?

Answers:

• Preparation,Planning,Kick-off,Review meeting,Follow-up,rework

• None of the above

• Planning,kick-off,Preparation,Review meeting,Follow-up,Rework

• Planning,Preparation,kick-off,Review meeting,Follow-up,Rework

• Planning,kick-off,Preparation,Review meeting,Rework,Follow-up

148. Which of the following is NOT a cost of software failures?

Answers:

• Rework

• Helpline support

• Testing

• Repair

149. A good rule of thumb is ___

Answers:

• there is one bug per line of code written

• the team needs three testers per developer

• each test will have the same chance of finding a bug as every other test

• there are always twice as many bugs in the product as are active in the test database

150. What error would occur if event B occurs before event A, with event A being the intended first completed event?

Answers:

• An access violation

• A deadlock

• A race condition

• An infinite loop

151. Testing by executing programmed code with a given set of test cases is referred to as:

Answers:

• white-box testing

• static testing

• dynamic testing

• black-box testing

152. True or False? A failure, if encountered, may result in a fault.

Answers:

• True

• False

153. A function that returns the type of triangle has how many equivalence classes?

Answers:

• 2

• 4

• 5

• 3

154. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?  if width > length    then biggest_dimension = width      if height > width              then biggest_dimension = height      end_if else biggest_dimension = length               if height > length                  then biggest_dimension = height           end_if end_if

Answers:

• 2

• 3

• It is never possible to reach 100% decision coverage

• 4

• 8

155. Which of the following is NOT true of statement coverage?

Answers:

• It verifies what the written code is expected to do.

• It tests the false conditions.

• It tests the true conditions.

• It verifies what the written code is not expected to do.

156. Smoke testing might best be described as:

Answers:

• Testing that hides implementation errors

• Bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software

• Unit testing for small programs

• Rolling integration testing

157. Determining whether or not it is reasonable to continue testing is known as _____.

Answers:

• smoke testing

• sanity Testing

• decision testing

• price feasibility testing

158. In testing, the 80/20 rule is_________.

Answers:

• 80% of the issues will take up about 20% of your time and 20% of the issues will take about 80% of your time.

• Testing 20% of features that are used the most, by 80% of users.

• Testing 80% of defects that are caused by 20% of code.

159. All these answers are a single test suite. Which one does not need to be run in a test run?

Answers:

• create a file

• create a folder

• create a folder, and move a file into this new folder

• create a folder, then copy a file into this new folder

160. How many test cases should you execute to completely test a user experience containing only a single button?

Answers:

• One

• Ten

• Hundreds

• Dozens

161. A slider shows an integer value of up to 5.  How many possible values are there?

Answers:

• 5

• hundreds

• 6

• 10

162. In agile testing ___

Answers:

• testing is done one sprint ahead of coding

• testing typically gets done in the same sprint as the coding

• testing typically is one sprint behind coding

• testing should start the next sprint after coding is completed

163. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?

Answers:

• Version control

• Change control

• Configuration auditing

• Baseline identification


1 NOT Answered Yet Test Questions:

(hold on, will be updated soon)
164. Which of the following (combinations of) individuals would be present during a formal inspection?

Answers:

• Moderator, author/producer, reader

• Inspector, recorder

• Author/producer, reader, inspector

• All of these