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Test answers for Software Quality Assurance 2020

(137, CL) Last updated: February 12
Elance • IT & Programming
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137 Answered Test Questions:

1. What is UAT?

Answers:

• User acceptance testing

• User attemptation testing

2. What is the advantage of top-down versus bottom-up integration testing?

Answers:

• Test conditions are easier to create.

• The need for stub programs is eliminated.

• Major control functions can be tested early.

• Observation of test results is easier.

3. True or False? Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.

Answers:

• False

• True

4. What is Retesting

Answers:

• Testing same module After Bug is fixed

• Without fixed If we test Defect Again

• Testing the effected modules after the bug fixed

5. True or False? Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box testing.

Answers:

• False

• True

6. True or False? Software Quality Assurance is the framework for independent assessment and insight into software development processes and products.

Answers:

• False

• True

7. Which of the following should NOT be considered when performing unit testing?

Answers:

• Boundary conditions

• Customer acceptance

• Negative testing

• Error handling

8. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module is called ____________ testing.

Answers:

• black-box

• behavioral

• white-box

• grey-box

9. True or False? The testing environment does not need to track changes in configuration as it is not a production environment.

Answers:

• True

• False

10. Which of the following is a technique used in security testing:

Answers:

• SQL injection

• Alpha tests

• Equivalence partitioning

• Eye tracking

11. Which of the following is an approach for Integration Testing?

Answers:

• All of above

• Bottom Up Approach

• Top Down approach

• Big Bang Approach

12. A Test Plan is a document describing the ____________ of intended testing activities.

Answers:

• Schedule

• Scope

• (all of these)

• Approach

• Resources

13. True or False? Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.

Answers:

• False

• True

14. Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to:

Answers:

• Both errors in design and errors in implementation

• Errors in accuracy

• Errors in implementation

• Errors in operation

• Errors in design

15. Which of the following is NOT a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?

Answers:

• Budget

• Test

• Reviews and audits

• Documentation

16. What is the CMMI?

Answers:

• Capacity Maturation Modular Institute

• Capability Maturity Model Integration

• Connection Maturity Management Initiation

• None of these

17. Unit tests are usually conducted by:

Answers:

• Developers

• Test Engineers

• Business Analysts

• Users

18. Which  test is  OFTEN  the  responsibility  of the  customers  or  users  of  the  system?

Answers:

• Regression Testing

• Acceptance Testing

• System Testing

• Functional Testing

19. True or False? The developer is the best person to perform QA testing on the software as they know it so well.

Answers:

• True

• False

20. When running a testplan which of following should be tracked?

Answers:

• Number of unknown software bugs.

• Number of test cases that passed vs failed.

• Number of code lines executed in the software being tested.

• Number of words in the test plan.

21. True or False? Metrics can be used to indicate the relative strength of a software quality attribute.

Answers:

• True

• False

22. Quality Assurance is the same as Quality Control.

Answers:

• True

• False

23. Software defect (bug) is best defined as:

Answers:

• Slow response.

• An error visible for the user, e.g., browser crash.

• A discrepancy between the way the system-under-test is expected to function and the way it actually functions.

• Obvious failure, for example, server crash.

24. In relation to software quality, what does SCM stand for?

Answers:

• Support Change Management

• Software Configuration Management

• Software Change Manager

• Supply Chain Management

25. For a program that is supposed to accept any number between 1 and 10, four test cases that test the input of 0, 1, 10, and 11 are what type of test?

Answers:

• Boundary case testing

• Case statement

• Performance testing

• Load testing

26. True or False? Software Quality Assurance is organized into goals, commitments, abilities, activities, measurements and verifications.

Answers:

• Time's Up!

• True

• False

27. True or False? Deliverables such as requirements, a testing plan and test cases must be defined as part of the software development and testing processes in order to guarantee that testers can effectively follow-up throughout the project from the software quality perspective.

Answers:

• True

• False

28. Which element of the QA process comes first?

Answers:

• Build test suites

• Review documentation and meet with developers

• Update QA status

• Prepare for next build

29. Which of the following statements is true?

Answers:

• Effective methodologies help produce superior software with less time, money and effort

• All of these statements are true

• When setting up Software Testing Methodologies you need to be aware of the big picture

• Effective methodologies take into account more than just the testing that will be performed

30. Who typically performs unit testing?

Answers:

• Time's Up!

• Unit testing does not exist

• Programmers

• Outside Parties

• Testers

31. True or False? The elements of software quality assurance consist of reviews, audits, and testing.

Answers:

• False

• True

32. What is loader Runner

Answers:

• Tool to test performance of application

• Tool which is used to create test cases

33. True or False? People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from the customer's perspective.

Answers:

• False

• True

34. Which of these are considered best practice in software testing and validation?

Answers:

• Perform thorough regression testing

• All of these

• Trace requirements to test components

• Perform both static and dynamic testing

35. Compatibility testing for web application usually includes:

Answers:

• Testing with different numbers of concurrent users.

• Testing with different browser-operating system combinations.

• Testing with different sets of test data.

• Testing on different computers.

36. Diff between test cases and test suites

Answers:

• Test cases and test suites are same

• Test cases describe functionality but collection of test cases in sequential manner is called test suites

37. Diff between test plan and test cases

Answers:

• Test plan is formal planning for a project.Test cases are used for functionality of Software

• No difference found

38. Which of the following testing methods is NOT based on any knowledge of internal design or code?

Answers:

• Unit testing

• Black box testing

• White box testing

• None of these

39. Which of the following are characteristics of testable software?

Answers:

• Simplicity

• Observability, simplicity, and stability

• Stability and observability

• Stability

• Observability

40. What is the purpose of an inspection?

Answers:

• To find problems and see what's missing

• To make recommendations

• To gather preliminary information

• To fix the software

41. Types of UAT

Answers:

• alpha and beta

• Positve and negative

42. The following is an example of which type/class of testing: Shutting down the power on the database server during batch update.

Answers:

• Survivability and recovery

• User Acceptance

• Stress

• Usability

43. A _________ is a formal proposal for an alteration to a system or software.

Answers:

• change request

• configuration control

• specification

• software module

44. Static and dynamic analysis have same objectives?

Answers:

• No

• Yes

45. Testing that ignores the internal mechanism or structure of a system and focuses on the outputs is:

Answers:

• Structural testing

• Test documentation

• Procedure testing

• Functional testing

46. Unit testing is usually done as:

Answers:

• Integration Testing

• Gray Box Testing

• Black Box Testing

• White (Glass) Box testing

47. Which of the following is NOT a quality factor that should be considered when developing software?

Answers:

• Usability

• Cost

• Reliability

• Correctness

48. What is the correct order of the waterfall model phases?

Answers:

• Requirements, Design, Implementation, Verification, Maintenance

• Design, Requirements, Implementation, Verification, Maintenance

• Maintenance, Requirements, Design, Implementation, Verification

• Requirements, Design, Verification, Implementation, Maintenance

49. Which of the following is NOT a quality model?

Answers:

• CMMI

• ISO 9000

• All of these are quality models

• ISO/IEC 15504

50. Which SDLC model requires Testing Activities to start along with Development activities?

Answers:

• Waterfall Model

• Linear Model

• Spiral Model

• V-Model

51. A set of planned activities that are necessary to provide confidence that the software conforms to requirements is ___________________.

Answers:

• Testing

• Software Quality Assurance

• Planning

• Software Development

52. Software Quality Assurance Analysts and Software Testers do not do the same tasks.

Answers:

• False

• True

53. Which of the following stages is NOT part of the SDLC?

Answers:

• Design

• Maintenance

• Coding

• Performance

• Requirements

54. What is the relationship between Quality Assurance and software testing?

Answers:

• QA is part of the software testing process

• Software testing is part of the QA process

• Software testing and QA are both the same thing

• Software testing and QA are two different processes

55. A self-contained subdivision of a program that may be separately compiled is referred to as a:

Answers:

• Test bed

• Module

• Batch

• Trace node

56. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is:

Answers:

• ISO 9000

• ISO 9003

• ISO 9001

• ISO 9002

57. Traceability of Test Cases to Requirements is necessary in order to:

Answers:

• Ensure coverage

• Document test results

• Provide test data

• Establish test engineer's personal accountability

58. A ____________  is a document detailing a systematic approach to testing a system or piece of software.

Answers:

• Requirements Document

• Specification

• Test Plan

• Test Case

59. The approach a QA manager would take to reduce the incidence of failure due to defects is to:

Answers:

• Increase the type and extent of testing to remove defects before production

• Classify and count the defects so that you can identify the defect of highest frequency and eliminate the root cause of the defect

• Initiate code inspections to identify defects in code

• Encourage the programmers to try harder to make fewer defects

60. Who is NOT involved in developing a software testing strategy?

Answers:

• Project Manager

• Software Engineer

• Customer

• Developers

61. Which of the following is typically NOT included in a test plan?

Answers:

• Design diagram

• Introduction

• Assumptions/Preconditions

• List of features to be tested and not tested

62. What is TDD or Test Driven Development?

Answers:

• This is a technique which has short iterations where new test cases covering the desired improvement or new functionality are written first.

• This is an Iterative and incremental approach that emphasizes on the continuous user involvement.

• None of the above

• This is an iterative and incremental software development process and this can aim depends on the features.

63. In order to reflect the current quality status of the system-under-test (how good/bad things are), the most useful metric is:

Answers:

• Defects by the number of re-opens (rework).

• Defects by status and severity.

• Defects by priority.

• Defects by developer assignment.

64. The main purpose of a ____________ is to approve or reject all change requests.

Answers:

• Configuration Control Board

• Change Control Board

• Software Development Team

• Customer Liaison

65. Which of the following would be considered Priority 1 for Software Quality Assurance?

Answers:

• Boundary checking, Ad-hoc testing, installation combination

• Documentation of test scripts, metric tracking, load testing

• Testing new features and functions, data integrity checks, regression testing

66. To discover memory leaks, we need to execute tests that:

Answers:

• Exercise the functionality of the system-under-test repeatedly over time while measuring memory use.

• Imitate short bursts of concurrent users while measuring memory use.

• Measure response time on the client and on the server.

• Focus on the database fill-up and specifically on Log tables.

67. Which of these is a load testing tool?

Answers:

• QTP

• Selenium

• Jmeter

• Robotium

68. Which type of test includes how well a user will be able to understand and interact with the system?

Answers:

• Alpha Testing

• Beta Testing

• Usability Testing

• User Acceptance Testing

69. It is NOT advisable to automate tests that are:

Answers:

• Deal only with interfaces.

• Focus on system's behavior under stress.

• Not going to be repeated.

• Are well-documented and easy to execute manually.

70. True or False? Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because network load is highly variable.

Answers:

• False

• True

71. What is the difference between process and procedure?

Answers:

• The procedure is what must happen and the process is the step-by-step of how it will happen

• The process is who executes the necessary testing and the procedure is when it will be executed

• The procedure is who executes the necessary testing and the process is when it will be executed

• The process is what must happen and the procedure is the step-by-step of how it will happen

72. Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

Answers:

• Glass Box Technique

• Black Box Technique

• White Box Technique

73. Change Requests differs from Defects in that:

Answers:

• Defects always have a risk associated with their resolution, while Change Requests do not.

• Defects are deviations from requirements, while Change Requests are suggestions how to alter requirements.

• They are handled by different logging systems.

• Defects are logged by Test Engineers, while Change Requests - by Business Analysts.

74. Tracing eye movements is a technique characteristic of:

Answers:

• Functional testing

• Security testing

• Performance testing

• Usability testing

75. One of the method to do mobile test automation is instrumentation: remote control of the app-under-test without the possibility to control remotely the operating system of the mobile device. What is one of the major shortcomings of this method?

Answers:

• Inability to read data off the app fields.

• Inability to compare images.

• Inability to automate localization tests that require configuraiton changes at the device level.

• Inability to automate clicking app objects and make dropdown selections.

76. Testing for the retirement of the system which includes Data migration or archiving is called as

Answers:

• Maintenance Testing

• Alpha Testing

• Integration Testing

• Beta Testing

• System Testing

77. What is 'Equivalence Classes'?

Answers:

• Sampling them rather than try to test some huge set of inputs.

• Encryption that can protect the channel over which your conversation happens.

• A key-value pairs with an equals sign (=) between the key and the value.

• A special type of Universal Resource Identifier (URI).

78. What is boundary value analysis

Answers:

• In which we take boundary values and middle value for testing

• taking only with in the range values

• Only take boundary values for testing

79. Which of the following should NOT be present during an inspection?

Answers:

• A recorder

• The developer

• A reader

• A moderator

80. What is boundary value analysis?

Answers:

• A process in which the tester takes boundary values and middle values for testing

• A process in which the tests only takes boundary values for testing

81. Which of the following is NOT an example of a configuration control software?

Answers:

• Visual Studio

• Subversion

• CVS

• Git

82. Systems are audited after implementation to determine whether or not the system met certain standards.  This is an example of:

Answers:

• Detective control

• Quality control

• Corrective control

• Quality Assurance

83. The main role of QA analysts / test engineers during release reviews is:

Answers:

• Suggesting a release schedule.

• Playing user's advocate by questioning design decisions.

• Making the decision whether to release the system-under-test into production.

• Presenting the quality status of the application-under-test to decision makers.

84. What is a walkthrough?

Answers:

• None of these

• An in-depth look into how the software functions

• A formal testing of the software

• An informal meeting for evaluation or informational purposes

85. What is HTSM?

Answers:

• Human Test Strategy Model

• Hollow Team Strategy Model

• Heuristics Test Strategy Model

• Holistic Test Security Model

• High Tech Strategy Management

86. Which of the following is NOT an iterative software lifecycle?

Answers:

• Agile Development

• Test Driven Development

• Waterfall Method

• Extreme Programming

87. Production defects are usually discovered by:

Answers:

• Users

• Test Engineers

• Developers

• Customer Support

88. True or False? Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems.

Answers:

• False

• True

89. Which of the following is NOT a lightweight development methodology?

Answers:

• Waterfall Method

• Scrum

• Extreme Programming

• Agile Development

90. Which acceptance testing is most commonly performed by the customer in a controlled environment at the developer's site?

Answers:

• Exception

• Black Box

• Alpha

• Beta

91. Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories:

Answers:

• Incorrect or missing functions, and interface errors and performance errors

• None of these

• Interface errors

• Performance errors

• Incorrect or missing functions

92. Alpha tests differ from Beta tests in that:

Answers:

• Beta tests are conducted by the user, while Alpha tests are done by the testing team.

• Beta tests are done by the user under the supervision of the testing team at the test lab, while Alpha tests are done by the user in user's facilities without close supervision.

• Alpha tests are done by the user under the supervision of the testing team at the test lab, while Bets tests are done by the user in user's facilities without close supervision.

• Alpha tests are conducted by the user, while Beta tests are done by the testing team.

93. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of:

Answers:

• Cycles in the program

• Statements in the program

• Independent logic paths in the program

• Errors in the program

94. Under Six Sigma what is the correct Software Process Cycle?

Answers:

• Plan - Act - Check - Do

• Plan - Check - Act - Do

• Plan - Check - Do - Act

• Plan - Do - Check - Act

95. Defect's (bug's) Severity and Priority differ in that:

Answers:

• Severity is determined primarily by the technical factors, while Priority is determined by business-related factors.

• Severity is determined by user expectations, while Priority - by the impact on the functionality.

• Priority is determined primarily by the technical factors, while Severity is determined by business-related factors.

• Severity is determined by the developers and business analysis, while priority - by the testing team.

96. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called ____________ testing.

Answers:

• glass-box

• grey-box

• white-box

• black-box

97. UX Stands for _____________

Answers:

• Usage Exploration

• Under Existence

• User's Experience

• Usability Experience

98. The following test will be characteristic of which test type (test class/category): Making sure that it takes no more than three minutes for a novice user to fill out the form before clicking [Submit] -

Answers:

• Black Box

• Performance

• Usability

• Functionality

99. What type of testing is focused on testing the requirements of the software?

Answers:

• System testing

• Integration testing

• Unit testing

• Validation testing

100. Change request logged by a user is usually re-categorized as a defect when:

Answers:

• It is technologically complex.

• Its priority is very high and it needs to be handled immediately.

• It is discovered that the requirement it is suggesting to implement already exists.

• The testing team is charged with seeing it through.

101. The main disadvantage of using PC-based emulators for mobile testing is:

Answers:

• Installation issues: installing and handling emulators is more cumbersome than handling real hardware.

• Lack of reliability: emulators might not represent the user interface adequately.

• Lack of reliability: emulators might not represent the hardware constraints adequately.

• Compatibility: most emulators are incompatible with popular versions of MS Windows.

102. What aspects of software does white box testing examine?

Answers:

• Code statements, branches, paths and conditions

• Requirements and functionality

• How an application functions under heavy loads

• Internal program design and code

103. Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they:

Answers:

• Select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

• Exercise the logical conditions in a program module

• Focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

• Rely on basis path testing

104. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

Answers:

• To demonstrate that the software doesn???t work.

• To assess whether the software is ready for release.

• To find faults in the software.

• To prove that the software is correct.

105. Which of the following is NOT a feature of quality software?

Answers:

• Delivered within budget

• Meets requirements and expectations

• Delivered on time

• Completely bug-free

106. True or False? Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.

Answers:

• True

• False

107. True or False? Attempts to apply mathematical proof to demonstrate that a program conforms to its specifications are doomed to failure.

Answers:

• True

• False

108. True or False? The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly from a PDL representation of an algorithm without drawing a program flow graph.

Answers:

• True

• False

109. Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they:

Answers:

• rely basis path testing

• focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

• select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

• exercise the logical conditions in a program module

110. What Is selenium

Answers:

• above all

• free ware open source tool

• Automation tool

• web based testing tool

• Tool used for non functional testing

111. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that:

Answers:

• Prevent profitable marketing of the final product

• May result from user input errors

• Affect the reliability of a software component

• May cause an entire system to fail

112. Tracing defect origin, i.e., the stage in the development life cycle when the defect was created (Requirements, Design, Coding) can be helpful in:

Answers:

• Focusing improvement efforts.

• Writing better test cases.

• Understanding who among the development team does better.

• Predicting how many defects will be discovered during the User Acceptance Tests.

113. What are the levels of the CMMI quality model?

Answers:

• Neither of these

• Functionality, Reliability, Usability, Efficiency, Maintainability, Portability

• Initial, Managed, Defined, Quantitatively Managed, Optimizing

114. Test Heuristics are...

Answers:

• No such thing!

• a principle or mechanism by which we can tell if the software is working according to someone???s criteria;

• an old method of calculating the distance between two objects

• a method by which learning takes place as a result of discoveries informed by exploration.

115. What are real-time applications that add a new and potentially difficult element to the testing mix?

Answers:

• Reliability

• Performance

• tTime

• Security

116. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Quality Assurance Procedure?

Answers:

• Build test suites

• Review automation tools

• Submit review feedback

• Review documentation and meet with developers

117. Which of the following is NOT a goal specifically related to configuration management?

Answers:

• Customer satisfaction

• Configuration control

• Teamwork

• Defect tracking

118. Which of these activities is NOT one of the activities recommended to be performed by an independent SQA group?

Answers:

• Prepare SQA plan for the project

• Review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

• Serve as the sole test team for any software produced

• Report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management

119. True or False? Testing web application security is often a time-consuming,repetitive,and unfortunately all too often a manual process.

Answers:

• True

• False

120. An e-commerce application pulls the names of products from a server which, in turn, obtains information on different product categories from different sources. If we are testing the mobile front end for the application, we will need to test:

Answers:

• At least one product from each category.

• Products that are displayed differently, no matter what their categories are.

• Five-six products from each category.

• All products from all categories.

121. Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they:

Answers:

• Focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

• Select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

• Rely on basis path testing

• Exercise the logical conditions in a program module

122. Which items are typically included in the meta-data (as opposed to steps) of a test case?

Answers:

• Actions, expected results, step ID.

• Actions, expected results, step-specific test data.

• Test objectives, Pre- and Post- conditions.

• Actions, full test data.

123. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?

Answers:

• Performance errors

• Logic errors

• Typos and logic errors

• Typographical errors

• Behavioral errors

124. At what stage of the function development do the unit tests have to be created?

Answers:

• Before function implementation

• After function implementation

• After requirements analysis

• After design documentation creation

• During function implementation

125. Statistical quality assurance involves:

Answers:

• Tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes, and moving to correct them

• Surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality

• Tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle to correct each problem found

• Using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software

126. Which of the following is NOT a common problem in the software development process?

Answers:

• Miscommunication

• Poor requirements

• Short-staffing

• Inadequate testing

• Unrealistic schedule

127. Which of the following methods facilitates the maintainability of testing assets:

Answers:

• Keeping all the test data as part of the test case, embedded in its steps.

• Separating test cases (actions and expected results) and test data.

• Documenting test plan, test cases, and test data in one document.

• Trying to avoid the separation of test cases and test data.

128. SQL injection consists in:

Answers:

• Entering invalid data through SQL queries.

• Entering test data directly into SQL tables and queries.

• Entering SQL statements instead of legitimate data

• Pulling data from SQL server and entering it into the application-under-test.

129. Which of the following is the Black Box Test Technique?

Answers:

• None of the above

• Code Coverage

• Decision Table

• Statement Coverage

• Decision Coverage

130. What three core steps does Six Sigma methodology define?

Answers:

• Analyze, improve, control

• Define, measure, control

• Analyze, design, verify

• Define, measure, analyze

131. Which of the following is an attribute of quality software?

Answers:

• High cyclomatic complexity

• High cohesion

• High coupling

• Low cohesion

132. Object-oriented development is characterized by:

Answers:

• Higher overall number of defects

• Higher propensity to memory leaks

• Longer development cycles

• Lower overall number of defects

133. What type of testing is focused on testing the design of the software?

Answers:

• Validation testing

• Acceptance testing

• Unit testing

• Integration testing

134. The primary responsibility of quality lies with:

Answers:

• Developers

• Software testers

• None of the above

• Senior management

135. Which of the following can explain a positive correlation between defect priority and the number of times it is re-opened following re-test -

Answers:

• Developers forego unit tests to provide quicker turnaround.

• High priority defects are handled last.

• Defects that need to be resolved immediately are assigned to junior developers who have more time on their hands.

• High priority defects are handled first.

136. A software development strategy based on incremental development and certification to ensure maximum quality control is called:

Answers:

• Clean-room methodology

• Incremental means strategy

• Cohesion methodology

• Concurrent development

137. A required numeric field is supposed to allow values from 0 to 99. What would be the best smallest set of test data for testing this field?

Answers:

• 0, 99, -1, 100, -, ' (apostrophe), "(quotation marks), a, ab, abc, (empty)

• 0, 99, -1, 100

• 0, 99, -1, 100, -, ' (apostrophe), "(quotation marks), a, ab, A, AB, (empty)

• 0, 1, 9, 10, 99, -1, 100, -, ' (apostrophe), "(quotation marks), a, ab, abc, (empty)