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Test answers for Six Sigma Black Belt 2016

(85) Last updated: February 12
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85 Answered Test Questions:

1. What is mode?

Answers:

• Then mid point of a distribution

• The most frequently occuring data point in a set of observations

• The average of the mean and median

• The arithmetic balance point of a distribution

2. Which of the following methods model the effect of two or more inputs on an output variable?

Answers:

• Multivariate regression

• Correlation coefficient

• Linear Regression

• XY Diagram

3. Which of the following would be an observational study?

Answers:

• a histogram

• a box and whisker plot

• a behavior chart

• a bell curve

4. Which of the following is NOT a common categorization in Value Add Analysis?

Answers:

• Value failure

• Value adding

• Value enabling

• Non value adding

5. When used together for variables data, which of the following pair of quantities is the most useful in preparing controls charts?

Answers:

• R, sigma

• AQL, p-bar

• p, n

• X-bar and R

• t-test, chi-square

6. When implementing Statistical Process Control which of the following would be considered undesirable?

Answers:

• The control limits are wider than customer specification limits

• The lower control limit for the R chart is 0

• The process is already in statistical control

• The SPC is used for tracking transaction times at a warehouse

7. The objective of Design of Experiments (DOE) is to:

Answers:

• Map all process steps and determine their average duration

• Establish the best graphing method to illustrate process performance

• Find the right settings for key process input variables, to optimize process performance

• Determine the mean and standard deviation of a population

8. True or false? Benchmarking always focuses on companies within the same industry.

Answers:

• True

• False

9. True of false? You can always use the same standard deviation when calculating a sigma score, regardless of time frame.

Answers:

• False

• True

10. Why are variable control chart subgroup sizes generally 3, 4, 5, or 6?  A: Larger subgroup sizes would permit an opportunity for process changes with the subgroup. B: They easily fit on traditional chart paper C: They are large enough so that averages of data will follow the normal distribution D: They permit a separation of within time from time-to-time variation

Answers:

• B and C

• A, C, and D

• C

• A

• D

11. The over-arching intent of a Six Sigma analysis is to:

Answers:

• Eliminate all forms of waste (defects, waiting, over production, etc.)

• Reduce variation to be within the customer's specification limits.

• Center the process mean to align with the customer's target.

• Reduce variation to be within the customer's specification limits, and to center the process mean to align with the customer's target.

12. Which of the following tools is used to translate broad requirements to specific requirements:

Answers:

• Process chart

• Quality Control Plan

• Critical to Quality (CTQ) tree

• Data chart

13. Which of the following techniques is most suitable to collect requirements at the earliest stages of designing a process or a product

Answers:

• FTA

• FMEA

• QFD

• Muka

14. TPM efforts attempt to minimize six big losses.  Which of the following would NOT be included:

Answers:

• Employee absenteeism

• Reduced yields

• Equipment failure

• Setup and adjustment

15. What six sigma technique is used to quantify the amount of error in a measurement system?

Answers:

• Gage R&R

• Standard Deviation

• Process Capability

• Poisson Test

16. What does the total area beneath a normal curve equate to?

Answers:

• 0.5

• 1

• 1.5

• 2

17. In an estimated Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY) equation, what is the Defects per Unit (DPU) threshold limit?

Answers:

• <30%

• <10%

• <15%

• <20%

18. The proportion of units that go through a process for the first time without defect is called:

Answers:

• the first pass yield

• the KPI

• the first pass inspection

• the success yield

19. Excessive conflict within a work team:  A: Has a positive effect on creating alternate solutions B: Most often results in lose-lose situations C: Has a negative effect on team members and should be avoided

Answers:

• C

• A and B

• A, B, and C

• A

• B and C

20. Statistics are an important part of the analysis phase. What is the largest value minus the smallest value?

Answers:

• The range

• The variance

• The mean

• The standard deviation

21. A team has been asked to improve the small purchase process in a firm.  They decide to create a flow chart of the existing process because it will:

Answers:

• Improve takt time

• Identify wastes

• Rank costs

• Prioritize delays

• Visualize the process

22. True or false? Regression tests are functional tests.

Answers:

• False

• True

23. The mentor for a Green Belt exam should be at least be designated what?

Answers:

• Champion

• Master Black Belt

• Green Belt

• Black Belt

24. What first step should six sigma projects begin with?

Answers:

• Charter

• Analyze

• Initiation

• Define

25. When would Cp equal Cpk in a capability index calculation?

Answers:

• When Cp=pp

• When the standard deviation is less than 1

• When the specification limits are wide

• When the process is perfectly centered

26. What does SIPOC stand for?

Answers:

• Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers

• Systems Inputs, Process, Outputs, Complex

• Simple, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Constructs

• Suppliers, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Customers

27. The surface appearance of a refrigerator is not satisfactory. This statement is the outcome of what analysis/evaluation?

Answers:

• Range chart analysis

• Mean chart analysis

• Attribute Measurement

• Variable Measurement

28. What does a diamond symbol signify in a Process Map

Answers:

• Decision

• Ending

• Repair Station

• Beginning

29. When the mean of the process is outside the customer specification limits the value of Cpk will be:

Answers:

• Negative

• 1

• 0.5

• 2

30. Measuring a process' performance against that of a best-in-class peer or competitor, and then using the findings to identify opportunities to improve, is defined as what?

Answers:

• Contol charting

• Control defining

• Benchmarking

• Six Sigma improvement

31. Six Sigma is a managerial approach designed to create processes resulting in at most how many defects?

Answers:

• 34 defects per million opportunities

• 0.34 defects per million opportunities

• 3.4 defects per million opportunities

• 340 defects per million opportunities

32. Which quality innovator formulated the cause and effect diagram?

Answers:

• Okinawa

• Juran

• Ishikawa

• Deming

33. Which of the following is an INAPPROPRiate application of a Pareto chart?

Answers:

• A critically weighted ranking of categories

• A financially weighted ranking of categories

• An alphabetic based ranking of categories

• A frequency based ranking of categories

34. Team empowerment derives from:  A. The organizational management B. Access to organizational information C. Access granted to organizational resources

Answers:

• A, B, and C

• C

• B and C

• A and C

• A

35. Which of the following are potential benefits of Process Mapping?

Answers:

• To compare the actual process, and all its variations, against the ideal process

• To reveal unnecessary, complex, and redundant steps in a process.

• (All of these)

• To give all team members a single, common view of the entire process

36. Callaway makes golf clubs. Which of the following is not considered one of Callaways internal customers?

Answers:

• Distribution

• Packaging

• Marketing

• Retail Store

37. When considering the "rule of thumb" that 20% of the inputs result in 80% of the outputs, what graphical tool is effective for prioritizing Critical X's?

Answers:

• Bar Chart

• Pareto Chart

• Control Chart

• Skew Chart

38. Which of the following is NOT a DMAIC term?

Answers:

• Analyze

• Measure

• Cause

• Define

39. What is the F distribution used for?

Answers:

• To study the equality of two means

• To study the equality of two variances

• To review errors

• To analyze data

40. Which of the following reflects the meaning of the word ???????Poka ????????Yoke????????

Answers:

• Low Quality

• With defects

• Expensive

• Mistake Proof

41. The QFD process can be described as:

Answers:

• Financial metrics approach

• Parametric approach

• Customer competitive assessment

• Technical results driven process

• A customer driven process

42. What is the most logical reason for using short run SPC charts?

Answers:

• There is a need to plot multiple variables per chart

• There is limited data

• There is a need to simplify the process

• There is limited operator time

43. The tendency for highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities is:

Answers:

• Groupthink

• Human Needs

• Nominal Group Technique

• The Skinner Box

• Cognition

44. Which of the following devices are associated with the visual factory

Answers:

• Work cells

• Queue times

• Andon boards

• Standard work instructions

45. How is the risk priority number in a FMEA exercise derived?

Answers:

• severity x risk x detection

• severity x occurrence x risk

• severity x occurrence x detection

• occurrence x detection x control

46. The following objective is relevant to which Phase of a DMAIC Six Sigma Project:   To identify the process and Critical to Quality (CTQ) parameters which will be improved, using Voice of the Customer (VOC), Quality Function Deployment (QFD), Pareto Chart, etc.

Answers:

• Improve

• Analyze

• Define

• Measure

47. A process resulting in 99% accuracy to customer specifications, is equivalent to what Sigma level (Process Capability)?

Answers:

• 4 Sigma

• 3.8 Sigma

• 5 Sigma

• 6 Sigma

48. The following objectives are relevant to which Phase of a DMAIC Six Sigma Project:   * Identify the measurable Y metric that will be improved. * Define a defect from the customer???s perspective * Ensure that you can trust the measurement of the Y

Answers:

• Measure

• Improve

• Analyze

• Define

49. What variable is used to describe a sigma score?

Answers:

• Z

• Y

• X

• Chi

50. Which of the following represents how variance is computed?

Answers:

• Average squared deviation of each individual data point from the mean

• Average of median and mean

• Average deviation of values from the mean of a data distribution

• Difference between maximum and minimum value of a set of data points

51. The distribution of the average of n samples will follow which distribution as n becomes large?

Answers:

• Normal

• Lognormal

• Poisson

• Exponential

52. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is what kind of a tool?

Answers:

• Diagnostic Tool

• Planning Tool

• Quality Tool

• Check Sheet

53. My company operates at a yield of 68.27%, At what sigmal level is my company operating at?

Answers:

• 2 sigma

• 3 sigma

• 1 sigma

• 5 sigma

54. Subgroups are used in which types of SPC charts?

Answers:

• Z Charts

• nU charts

• Xbar charts

• MR Charts

55. A chart that contains defect types on the X axis, customers on the Y axis, and numbers of defects at the corresponding column and row intersections is called:

Answers:

• A cause and effect diagram

• A control chart

• A matrix diagram

• A pareto chart

56. Which of the following is not the preserve of a "Project Champion"

Answers:

• Defines Projects

• Breaks down roadblocks

• Helps recruit team members/obtains resources

• Provides technical six sigma expertise

57. After the completion of a process improvement, what two actions are required?  A: The operating manual must be revised B: The operating documentation must be updated C: Management should be trained on the new changes D: The documentation users should be trained on the changes

Answers:

• A and C

• B and D

• C and D

• A and B

58. The expected (theoretical) value for a cell in a contingency table is calculated by which formula:

Answers:

• (O-E/E)

• row total * column total / grand total

• (Rows - 1)(Columns -1)

• row total * column total / column total

59. What information does Cp convey?

Answers:

• Process potential

• Lowest value in a range

• Process performance

• Highest value in a range

60. Why is acceptance sampling conducted?

Answers:

• To determine if every part in the lot needs to be tested or not

• To remove bad parts from the sample

• To estimate if the entire lot is of acceptable quality

• To estimate whether or not the quality of the parts is acceptable

61. A Six Sigma Black Belt would be responsible for all of the following except:

Answers:

• Use analytics tools to identify root causes of problems

• Training organisation staff in six sigma techniques and team work

• Line management of improved processes, post-implementation

• Applying Kaizen thinking to drive continuous improvement

62. Which of the following sets of variables can be controlled to change performance in six sigma?

Answers:

• Dependent Variables

• Independent Variables

• Transparent Variables

• XY Variables

63. When the Upper Specification Limit (USL) and Lower Specification Limit (LSL) for a Six Sigma Process are plotted on a Normal Distribution, they are located at:

Answers:

• +3 standard deviations and -3 standard deviations from the Mean, respectively

• +6 standard deviations and -6 standard deviations from the Mean, respectively

• +1 standard deviation and -5 standard deviation from the Mean, respectively

• +5 standard deviation and -1 standard deviation from the Mean, respectively

64. What does a control limit indicate?

Answers:

• Desired upper or lower performance limits

• he boundary of the bell curve in a normal distribution

• a process event or measurement is likely to fall outside that limit

• a process event or measurement is likely to fall within that limit

65. What does 5 sigma represent in defects per million opportunities (DPMO)?

Answers:

• 66,810 defects per million opportunities

• 6,210 defects per million opportunities

• 233 defects per million opportunities

• 3.4 defects per million opportunities

66. Which of the following would non-functional testing be used for?

Answers:

• Testing a specific function

• Testing a result

• Testing a system's architecture

• Testing a program behavior

67. Which of the following is NOT a normally accepted control chart interpretation rule violation?

Answers:

• Seven or more consecutive points above or below the center line in 20

• Six or more consecutive points, upward or downward, in more than 20 plot points

• Two or three points in zone 3

• Ten points in a row in zone 1

68. Which of the following is NOT an example of non-functional testing?

Answers:

• Endurance testing

• Baseline testing

• Compatibility testing

• Black box testing

69. Which of the following statements is false with respect to Gage R&R?

Answers:

• R&R can be used to analyze control charts, and reduce common causes of variation

• Gage R&R can be performed before conducting Process Capability or Machine Capability studies, to ensure that the measurements used are reliable indicators of the process or machine output.

• R&R can be used to qualify operators proficiency on specific measurement equipment.

• When conducting an R&R Study, you must not use production parts, or parts that are similar to production parts

70. "Process ACME" involves the manufacturing of Smart boxes. In Process ACME, A,B,C & D are the opportunities for defects. In one such process, 20 defects were found in 100 smart boxes made. What is the six sigma level at which Process ACME is operating?

Answers:

• 3.5

• 3.4

• 3.145

• 3.252

71. A F-distribution most closely resembles:

Answers:

• A log normal distribution

• A chi-square distribution

• A skewed distribution

• An exponential distribution

• A t-distribution

72. Of the following, for what purpose would a p-chart be used?

Answers:

• Measure the central tendency

• Monitor the fraction defective

• Measure variation

• Monitor the number of defective per unit

73. In Measurement System Analysis the variance contribution allowed for Gage R & R is a maximum of:

Answers:

• 10%

• 20%

• 15%

• 30%

74. If four inspectors were evaluated for the detection and non-detection of a defect in twenty samples, how many degrees of freedom would be used to determine the critical chi-square value?

Answers:

• 3

• 16

• 4

• 6

• 8

75. A manufacturer of bicycles would like to visualize where the defects occur on the bicycles.  The defects encountered so far include missing bolts, paint peeling, missing decals, sharp edges, and bent metal parts.  A useful tool for this application is a:

Answers:

• X-type matrix

• Measles chart

• Scatter diagram

• Regression analysis

• Histogram

76. Which of the following is NOT an automated regression testing tool?

Answers:

• BuildBot

• TeamCity

• TinderBot

• Tinderbox

77. Cpk has been calculated for a stable, non-automated process.  Then, the operator is told to check samples at random and make centering adjustments based on the sample readings.  One would expect that:

Answers:

• Process capability has gotten worse

• Process capability has improved

• The outcome is unpredictable

78. The accuracy of a measuring instrument is linked to the U.S National Standards by:

Answers:

• Traceability

• Capability

• Confirmation

• Standardization

• Stress tests

79. There is a 50% chance that a bike will be produced with a defect. This probability is called the:

Answers:

• DPMO

• first pass yield

• throughput yield

• DPU

80. What is the primary metric used in baseline measurement?

Answers:

• Output

• Input

• Customers

• DPU

81. Kanban concepts include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Answers:

• Distress throughout the production system when a machine failure occurs

• Wide applicability to repetitive and non-repetitive production plants

• Minimal storage in production areas

• Delivery of components and products only when needed

82. Kano Model shows the path towards what behavior?

Answers:

• Satisfying a customer

• Delighting a customer

• Meeting the expectations of a customer

• Annoying a customer

83. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the short run set chart?

Answers:

• Both high and low range values are plotted

• The control limits are looser than with X-bar and R charts

• The X-bar value is subtracted from the target

• It can be used to plot die cavity data

84. Which of the following statements about the Student T distribution are true?   i) It has a mean of t=0   ii) As the sample size reduces, the student t distribution gets closer to the standard normal distribution   iii) The standard deviation of the t distribution is always greater than 1

Answers:

• 1 & 2 only

• None

• 2 & 3 only

• 1,2 & 3

85. What design methodology uses the IDEA process for product definition and development?

Answers:

• Portfolio architecting

• Systematic design

• TRIZ

• Pugh analysis