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Test answers for Project Management 2016

(138, CL) Last updated: February 12
Elance • Fin. & Mgt.
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138 Answered Test Questions:

1. Generally, in what project phase is risk and opportunity greater than the amount at stake?

Answers:

• Planning phase

• Monitoring and Controlling Phase

• Executing phase

• Closing phase

2. Code testing is the job of:

Answers:

• Only coder

• Both coder and tester

• Project manager

• PMO

• Only tester

3. Which of the following is NOT a source selection criteria used in contract procurement?

Answers:

• understanding of need

• technical capability

• cost

• open change requests

4. What is involved with fast tracking a schedule?

Answers:

• Bringing in additional project management to oversee the schedule.

• Arranging some project activities to happen concurrently, rather than sequentially.

• Reassigning activities that can be done faster through outsourcing.

• Setting up incentives to motivate the team to work faster.

5. A stakeholder has been made aware of an overbudgeted, overstaffed, and underperformed project. A Project Manager should respond by_________.

Answers:

• Forming an independent troubleshooting team and increasing the pay of top performers

• Hiring a new team and requesting budget increases

• Informing the stakeholder of misinformation and ensuring forward progression.

• Identifying the details and environment surrounding the issues and enacting a post-assessment plan

6. Project Manager for a project is identified during:

Answers:

• If management of project fails

• Project closure

• Product deployment

• Project Initiation

7. Cost Variance is used to monitor ______.

Answers:

• Cost Performance

• Overbudgeting

• Underbudgeting

• All of the Above

8. The point of planning is to ______.

Answers:

• Understand whats needs to be done

• Stick to the script

• Finish quickly

• Come up with one idea

9. Project Lifecycle is:

Answers:

• Writing a report on life of a project

• Checking how many cycles there are in a project

• A logical sequence of project phases comprising of associated activities

• Defining project in a cyclic manner

10. Which groups are included as project stakeholders?

Answers:

• Project team

• Client contacts and management

• All of these

• Team supervisors

11. Project Review is a process of:

Answers:

• Monitoring business

• Monitoring project team behavior

• Monitoring project performance and control of risks

• Monitoring customer end users

12. True or False? The closing stage consists of more than one type of closure?

Answers:

• True

• False

13. Quality Control can be monitored by creating these?

Answers:

• All of the Above

• Statistical Analysis

• Trouble Shooting Techniques

• Feedback Systems

14. Initiation is used to identify which of the following?

Answers:

• Strategy

• Purpose

• All of the Above

• Scope

15. Which one of these is part of the execution stage?

Answers:

• Distribution of information

• Quality assurance

• All of these

• Conduct procurement

16. What would a project manager need to understand in order to properly sequence activities in a WBS?

Answers:

• All of the above

• Inputs

• Outputs

• Durations

17. Which of these is not a stage of Project management?

Answers:

• Planning

• Cleansing

• Closure

• Execution

18. When is the best time to close a project?

Answers:

• All of these

• When all deliverables are signed off.

• When project documentation is filed.

• When contracts are closed.

19. The stakeholders of a project are the:

Answers:

• End users

• Project managers

• PMO

• All of these

• Customer management

20. What are the key attributes of a kickoff meeting?

Answers:

• All of these

• Client participation

• Project charter is complete

• Team participation

21. Tester's job is to:

Answers:

• State severity of bug

• Explain implication of bug

• Documentation of Bugs Report

• All of these

• Find out the bug in code

22. Prime role of a Project Manager is:

Answers:

• Risk mitigation

• Project closure

• Team management

• All of these

• Crisis management

23. What is the project manager responsible to do?

Answers:

• Ensure timely delivery.

• Foster team communication.

• Deliver at agreed budget.

• All of these

24. Project Manager is responsible for:

Answers:

• All of these

• Project execution

• Project closure

• Project Initiation

25. More rework in a project means:

Answers:

• Poor project management

• Poor development

• Poor team management

• All of these

• Poor governance

26. Project Closure comprises of :

Answers:

• A formal closure note

• Customer acceptance

• Release of project resources

• All of these

27. The deliverables have been signed off and teams have stopped working on the project. Which project phase are you in?

Answers:

• Project planning

• Project execution

• Project closure

• Project control

28. Project Governance is about:

Answers:

• Sharing success stories of past projects

• Sharing failures of past projects

• Sharing practices with team and assigning roles in monitoring

• Sharing project team details

29. Risk Management includes:

Answers:

• Risk evaluation and propogation

• Risk Assessment and mitigation plan and execution

• Risk Assessment and award

• Risk execution and identification

30. _______ is a formal approved document that defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

Answers:

• Change Management Plan

• Project Runner

• Project Management Plan

• Performance Plan

31. CPM stands for?

Answers:

• Control Problem Maps

• Critical Path Method

• Cease Plan Mode

• Crystallize Plan Mode

32. The quantity of time that will elapse from the start of an activity to its end is called what?

Answers:

• Effort

• Time required

• Work required

• Duration

33. Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill a project manager should use in managing stakeholders expectations?

Answers:

• Resolving conflict

• Building trust

• Active listening

• Denying change requests

34. If customer requirements are not met:

Answers:

• A project can be closed successfully if PMO agrees

• All payment can be claimed from customer

• A project can be treated as successful

• A project can't be treated as successful

35. _______ is the processes involved in estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs so the project can be completed within the approved budget.

Answers:

• Project Planning

• Project Cost Management

• Project Quality Management

• Performance Management

36. Which of these is not a stage of Project Development?

Answers:

• Initiation

• Execution

• Interpolation

• Closure

37. Who is responsible for conducting formal or informal assessments of the project team's performance?

Answers:

• Project team themselves

• Customer

• Project management team

• Chief Information Officer (CIO)

38. A team leader's job is to ______ a group's collaborative work.

Answers:

• Denigrate

• Reproduce

• Relegate

• Oversee

39. An effective Project manager will cancel a failing project only after this process?

Answers:

• Project Referral

• Project Assessment

• Project Delays

• Project Initiation

40. What is "KPI"?

Answers:

• Key Project Index

• Key Project Implementation

• Key Performance Index

• Key Project Idea

41. The _________ documents the approach to communicate effectively and efficiently with stakeholders.

Answers:

• Performance Plan

• Project Planning

• Communications Management Plan

• Quality Plan

42. What is the purpose of a project charter?

Answers:

• Primary sales document

• Authorization of the project

• Focal point of the project

• All of these

43. _______ consists of all the processes that ensure that the work necessary, and only the work necessary, to successfully complete the project has been defined.

Answers:

• Change Management

• Project Scope Management

• Project Planning

• Performance Management

44. What does SV stand for?

Answers:

• Schedule Variance

• Schedule Vitals

• Scalable Volue

• Summary and Vision

45. Add this type of clause to a deadline agreement for a project with great scope?

Answers:

• Extension Clause

• Cancellation Clause

• Autopay Clause

• Buyout Clause

46. The process of administering actionable tasks is called?

Answers:

• Delegation

• Representation

• Relaying

• Quantification

47. A sponsor has requested a fixed budget and a fixed scope. What is the most effective way to plan?

Answers:

• If the project budget is less than the requested budget, count the difference as contingency.

• If the project budget is more than the requested budget, agree to the terms but add change penalty fees into the contract.

• If the project budget is more than the requested budget, negotiate the cost estimates down.

• Clarify with the sponsor which project attribute is most important to them. Plan the project with that attribute fixed.

48. The team is working on the project and regular communication is happening between the project manager, the team, and the client. Which project phase are you in?

Answers:

• Project execution

• Project control

• Project planning

• Project initiation

49. ________ is acknowledging a risk but taking no action to avoid, transfer, or mitigate  it.

Answers:

• Risk mitigation

• Risk prevention

• Risk analysis

• Risk acceptance

50. Triple constraint of a project is:

Answers:

• Resistance to change, lack of support, team management

• No specification, difficult users, political intervention

• Budget, time, knowledge

• Scope, schedule, cost

51. High Severity Risk in a project:

Answers:

• Reduces failure chances

• Impacts negatively on progress and success of project

• Improves efficiency of product

• Enhances progress of project

• Increase market visibility

52. This type of chart displays a project start and finish date?

Answers:

• Pie

• Kant

• Flow

• Gannt

53. What is the total float of a project?

Answers:

• Amount of time a project can slip without affecting the project end date

• Sum of the amount of time spent on analysis

• Time spent by the project manager between the different team members

• Idle time when project members are not fully occupied

54. What is a Gantt chart?

Answers:

• A series of interrelated pie charts showing the productivity of each team member.

• A hierarchical network of boxes showing the relationship of work packages and their inputs.

• A schedule analysis chart that shows the schedule opportunity left in a project.

• A visual representation of schedule that shows project activities as bars.

55. The _________ calculates the longest path of planned activities to logical end points or to the end of the  project, and the earliest and latest that each activity can start and finish without making the project longer.

Answers:

• event chain methodology

• Delphi method

• Critical path method

• project plan

56. What is a project manager called when using scrum methodologies?

Answers:

• Scrum Master

• Product Manager

• Project Manager

• Program Manager

57. When is a WBS used?

Answers:

• When cancelling vendor agreements.

• When contrasting final deliverables to original contract.

• When documenting a team member change.

• When identifying activities needed to create deliverables.

58. What are the most common parts of a stand-up meeting?

Answers:

• Burndown chart review, finished work review, updates from team.

• Team review of product that is almost ready for release, noting of issues, assignment of issue owners.

• Task list review, new task assignments, questions.

• Reporting the progress on the project since the last meeting, reporting of plans until the next meeting, noting issues that are delaying progress.

59. _______ is the expected total cost of the project at completion.

Answers:

• Actual Cost (AC)

• Total cost estimate

• Budget at Completion (BAC)

• Estimated Cost at Completion (EAC)

60. Which of the following is NOT one of the indicators of a team's effectiveness?

Answers:

• Improvements in competencies that raise overall team performance.

• Individual team members try to outperform one another.

• Reduced staff turnover rate.

• Individual skills improvement so team members can perform assignments more effectively.

61. You are monitoring the schedule progress and evaluating budget. You see a trend of going over budget and are having conversations to correct the issue. Which project phase are you in?

Answers:

• Project initiation

• Project control

• Project execution

• Project planning

62. When do you as a Projectmanager need to communicate with your Steering Committee ?

Answers:

• When an issue arises, earlier identified as risk, that now needs to be taken care of.

• The Projectmanager only communicates with his Team, never with the Steering Committee.

• When your monthly highlight report is due, you include this new risk.

• When an issue is solved, you report monthly to the Steering Sommittee.

• When you or your team classifies a new risk as high, you report this risk Immediately and include a proposed measurement.

63. The team just discovered an significant unplanned cost. Which of the following is not a way to resolve this?

Answers:

• Renegotiate other areas of the budget.

• Reallocate funds from another project.

• Proceed with the project and hope that things sort out.

• Use a contingency budget.

64. _______ is the processes and activities that determine quality policies, objectives, and responsibilities which ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

Answers:

• Project Cost Management

• Project Planning

• Project Quality Management

• Performance Management

65. Quantitative Project Management is best used for?

Answers:

• Isolating Quality concerns

• Distributing tasks

• Determining resource availability

• Predicting Cost and Schedule Overruns

66. Which one of the following is NOT one of the four P's that effective software project management focuses on?

Answers:

• People

• Process

• Project

• Perspective

67. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an issues log?

Answers:

• The project team member that caused the issue is identified

• Issues are clearly stated

• Issues are categorized based on urgency and impact

• An owner is assigned to every issue

68. What should the project manager do to ensure that all work is included in the project plan?

Answers:

• Create a contingency plan

• Create a quality plan

• Create a WBS

• Create a risk management plan

69. What happens at each gate when using the phase-gate model?

Answers:

• A new idea is implemented to the project

• A new commitee reviews eash stage

• The project is moved to a new location

• Continuation of the project is reviewed by a committee

70. ________ constitutes one of the major areas of cost growth.

Answers:

• Risk prevention

• Project planning

• Scope change

• Bug fixes

71. What must a project manager do to create clear boundaries for project completion?

Answers:

• Create a communications plan

• Complete a stakeholder management plan

• Complete a scope statement

• Complete a risk management plan

72. Failed deadlines may result in which of the following?

Answers:

• Schedule Extension

• All of these

• Decreased Budget

• Increased Budget

73. Which of these is the first phase of Project management?

Answers:

• Closure

• Planning

• Initiation

• Control

74. _______ is giving the customer more than what was required.

Answers:

• Performance

• Quality

• Gold-plating

• Earned value

75. Which of the following is not a common communication tool for project managers?

Answers:

• WBS

• Burndown charts

• Network diagrams

• Code register

76. _________ is the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information.

Answers:

• Performance Management

• Project Communications Management

• Project Quality Management

• Project Cost Management

77. A client has added tasks to a contracted project without full disclosure. This is called?

Answers:

• Screening

• Blind Screening

• Scope Creep

• Scope Drip

78. A type of project management that is typically used in technology and software development is:

Answers:

• Agile project management

• Tech project management

• Lean project management

• Process-based project management

79. With a little time to create a team, a Project Manager should value ________.

Answers:

• Availability only

• Skill Set & Speed

• Availability & Skill Set

• Speed & Adaptability

80. _______ is the formal process to review, approve, and manage changes to project deliverables, documents, and the project management plan throughout the project.

Answers:

• Performance control

• Performance plan

• Plan management

• Integrated Change Control

81. ________ a technique used to determine whether particular work can be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased from an outside source.

Answers:

• Procurement analysis

• Time-and-materials contract

• Make-or-buy analysis

• Project planning

82. If you believe the likelihood of a milestone occurring is sufficient, you could list this probability as what?

Answers:

• Assertion

• Asymptote

• Aspect

• Assumption

83. ________ is the effect on project objectives if the risk event occurs.

Answers:

• Risk prevention

• Risk mitigation

• Risk consequences

• Risk acceptance

84. Project Plan primarily consists of:

Answers:

• Project start time, project start date, project finish date, project finish time

• Project stakeholder names, project name, customer name

• Project team member details, date of birth, address

• Project tasks, priority, allocated to, and target date

• Project name, project closure date, project sponsors

85. What term refers to a project environment where project contributors do not report organizationally to a project manager?

Answers:

• Enterprise

• Hierarchy

• Projectized

• Matrix

86. You notice that several activities have taken longer than expected. What would be the least effective course of action?

Answers:

• Add additional resources to future activities.

• Renegotiate shorter time estimates on future activities.

• Evaluate the impact and communicate to the team.

• Hope that later activities will make up for the loss of time.

87. Which of the following aspects of a project are known as the project management triangle?

Answers:

• Scope, quality, stakeholders

• Time, cost, schedule

• Expertise, communication, tools

• Scope, schedule, cost

88. Customer Requirement is captured during:

Answers:

• Project closure phase

• Project execution phase

• Project initiation phase

• Project planning phase

• After the project is completed

89. _______ authorizes a project or phase of a project.

Answers:

• Performance Plan

• Project Management Plan

• Project Charter

• Change Management Plan

90. Which of the following is NOT a process in Project Procurement Management?

Answers:

• Administer procurements

• Conduct procurements

• Retain procurements

• Plan procurements

91. ________ is reducing the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to below an acceptable level.

Answers:

• Risk analysis

• Risk prevention

• Risk mitigation

• Risk planning

92. Customer Requirement Documentation is done by the:

Answers:

• Business analysis team

• Quality team

• Project manager

• Development team

• Project management team

93. The stakeholder analysis should be done in which stage of the project management?

Answers:

• Production and execution

• Planning and design

• Monitoring and controlling

• Initiation

94. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used tool or technique to collect requirements?

Answers:

• Questionnaires and surveys

• Review Project Plan

• Interviews

• Prototypes

95. What is a management style that is used for breaking down projects into small components?

Answers:

• Project breakdown strategy

• Work breakdown strategy

• Project breakdown structure

• Work breakdown structure

96. What are the most common attributes in a risk register?

Answers:

• Stakeholders effected, communication requirements

• Probability, impact

• Cost impact, schedule impact

• Contact, history

97. Bug lists, Issue lists, and Deliverables are all part of which phase?

Answers:

• Initiating

• Execution

• Closure

• Control

98. Project closes with:

Answers:

• Project training

• Product demo

• Product development

• Project review

• Project closing declaration by project team

99. Which one of the following is NOT in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Answers:

• Self Performance

• Physiological

• Safety

• Self Actualization

100. You are assembling a team and building understanding of the project needs. Which project phase are you in?

Answers:

• Project control

• Project planning

• Project execution

• Project initiation

101. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cost of quality?

Answers:

• Scrap

• Gold-plating

• Liabilities

• Rework

102. ________ is a provision, usually time or money, to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk.

Answers:

• Planning

• Reserve

• Hold back funds

• Risk mitigation

103. Sometimes there is a waiting period between two sequential tasks. What is this span of empty time called?

Answers:

• Gap

• Float

• Overrun

• Wideband

104. What is the origin of the traditional project management's nickname "Waterfall?"

Answers:

• The look of project activities scheduled back to back on a Gantt chart.

• The focus of traditional project managers to push communication through a hierarchy.

• The way that traditional project management rolls up costs.

• The common practice of vertically sequencing the deliverables from most complex to least complex.

105. What is the purpose of the process to collect requirements?

Answers:

• To ensure that the work necessary, and only the work necessary, to successfully complete the project has been defined.

• To define and document stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives.

• To design a quality software project.

• To authorize a project or phase of a project.

106. What is scope creep?

Answers:

• That slimy guy with glasses.

• A slower than desired progress in completing the scope of a project.

• Features and deliverables not agreed to in the original plan.

• When a client repeatedly adds new features during planning.

107. What is the main responsibility of the Steering Committe during Project Execution?

Answers:

• Investigate the possibilities for enlargement of financial budget for future problems?

• Making clear and timely decisions

• Discuss with all stakeholders, that the Projectmanager communicates with, about the status of the Project

• Sit back and relax, watch the project execute.

108. What project document is best used to document initial roles, scope, and expectations?

Answers:

• Scope plan

• Project plan

• Project charter

• Preliminary plan

109. Which of the following is NOT a cost estimate tool or technique?

Answers:

• Cost of quality

• Bottom-up estimating

• Delphi method

• Parametric estimating

110. What is a WBS input?

Answers:

• Overhead costs related to an activity.

• Items needed before an activity can be done.

• Time estimates for an activity.

• The documents needed to run a WBS meeting.

111. ______ is the degree to which a set of characteristics fulfills requirements.

Answers:

• Grade

• Performance

• Scope

• Quality

112. Which one of these is NOT a stage of the phase-gate model?

Answers:

• Scoping

• Research

• Development

• Launch

113. Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment?

Answers:

• Expected value technique

• Delphi Technique

• Work Breakdown Structure

• Peer Review

114. A burndown chart is used for which of the following purposes?

Answers:

• To show the organizational hierarchy of the project.

• To estimate team member energy level.

• To estimate remaining cost.

• To visualize schedule progress.

115. Projectized refers to what?

Answers:

• An organization that focuses on obtaining, planning, and completing projects.

• Project teams managed in waterfall methodologies as opposed to agile methodologies.

• An organization that enters the majority of its work into project management systems.

• An organizational structure where the team members report directly to a project manager.

116. Alarmed by lagging progress, a project manager chooses to crash the schedule. What is s/he doing?

Answers:

• Adding additional resources to decrease the duration of future activities.

• Removing project activities.

• Compressing the schedule deadlines by a fixed percentage.

• Abandoning the established schedule and starting over.

117. PRINCE2 focuses on:

Answers:

• Long-term projects

• Controlled environments

• Fluctuating environments

• Short-term projects

118. Which of the following is NOT a critical practice for a software project?

Answers:

• Metric-based project management

• Formal risk management

• Earned value tracking

• Customer management

119. In what stage of team development do the members of the project team begin to trust each other?

Answers:

• Performing

• Forming

• Storing

• Norming

120. If you want to evaluate how much work effort remains on the project, what measure are you most likely to use?

Answers:

• BOM

• ETC

• PMBOK

• OBS

121. Which of the following would NOT be suitable for project management?

Answers:

• Testing a new software application

• Preparing for a big overseas holiday trip

• Designing a new customer service offering

• The management of a telephone call centre

• Putting together a large creative pitch at an advertising agency

122. Which of the following is NOT a process in project time management?

Answers:

• Develop schedule

• Review schedule

• Estimate activity durations

• Estimate activity resources

123. The act of gathering and organizing resources to accomplish a goal is called what?

Answers:

• Leadership

• Coordination

• Recruiting

• Management

124. What does "PRiSM" stand for?

Answers:

• Projects Integrating Systematic Methods

• Project Recovery in Situation Mess

• Project Restore in Systematic Methods

• Projects Integrating Sustainable Methods

125. What purpose does an OBS serve?

Answers:

• Identifies project risks that do not have a mitigation plan

• Organizes project stakeholders within the context of a project.

• Documents the project changes and history of the project into an list of historical operations.

• Establishes the on-boarding practices for bringing new team members to the project.

126. Which of these IS a valid earned value rule?

Answers:

• COCOMO

• BCWP

• S-curve

• Agile sprint

• 25/75

127. _______ is the total planned value for the project and constitutes the cost performance baseline.

Answers:

• Budget at Completion (BAC)

• Actual Cost (AC)

• Total cost estimate

• Estimated Cost at Completion (EAC)

128. Which of the following is NOT an input in the project management plan process?

Answers:

• Project Charter

• Change Management Plan

• Enterprise environmental factors

• Outputs from planning processes

129. Which of the following is NOT a process in Project Communications Management?

Answers:

• Plan communications

• Identify stakeholders

• Manage project team expectations

• Manage stakeholders expectations

130. How many phases are there in a common phase-gate model?

Answers:

• 6

• 7

• 3

• 4

131. You have one client, a technical resource, a design resource, an advisor, and yourself on a project. How many paths of two way communications are there to manage if all of them have complete access to each other?

Answers:

• 20

• 25

• 10

• 5

132. ______ is action taken to ensure that a defective or nonconforming item complies with requirements or specifications

Answers:

• Quality Assurance

• Rework

• Quality Control

• Coding

133. What types of project change qualify for change management?

Answers:

• Change of activity duration.

• Change of team members.

• Change of work flow documentation.

• Change of office location.

134. You have prepared the plan, received sign-off from the team, and are just about to get client sign-off. Which project phase are you in?

Answers:

• Project control

• Project initiation

• Project planning

• Project execution

135. What project management graphic shows you progress in terms of schedule, earned value and cost versus budget?

Answers:

• PERT chart

• S-curve

• Resource schedule

• Gantt chart

• All of these

136. The focus on what outcomes should change in project management is the:

Answers:

• Benefits realisation management

• Outcome management

• Benefits outcome management

• Benefits strategy

137. Managing projects that are uncertain and complex are often called:

Answers:

• Complex project management

• Intense project management

• Ambiguous project management

• Extreme project management

138. Four components of Eisenhower Matrix are:

Answers:

• BAD-Tasks, ALL-Tasks, DIRTY-Tasks, CLASSY-Tasks

• B-Tasks, A-Tasks, D-Tasks, C-Tasks

• Blue-Tasks, Amerald-Tasks, Daisy-Tasks, Classic-Tasks

• B-Tasks, A-Tasks, Tasks for Dustbin, C-Tasks

• X-Tasks, Y-Tasks, S-Tasks, C-Tasks